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Test Bank Cardiopulmonary Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Jardins

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Test Bank Cardiopulmonary Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition By Jardins

Test Bank for Cardiopulmonary Anatomy & Physiology 6th Edition Terry Des Jardins Download

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Chapter 1 The Anatomy and Physiology of the Respiratory System

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

     1.   Which of the following are primary components of the upper airway?

a.

nose, oral cavity, pharynx

b.

larynx, trachea, and bronchi

c.

nose, oral cavity, larynx and trachea

d.

nose, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The nose, oral cavity, and pharynx are the primary structures that compose the upper airway

B

The trachea and bronchi and subglottic portion of the larynx are located in the lower aiway

C

The trachea and subglottic part of the larynx are located in the lower airway.

D

The trachea and subglottic portion of the larynx are located in the lower airway.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Upper Airway   

OBJ:   1

 

     2.   Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the nose?

a.

humidfy inspired gas

b.

conduct gas and food to lower airway

c.

filter the inspired gas

d.

warm the inspired gas

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The nose humidifies,, warms, and filters the inspired gas.

B

The nose serves as passageway for gas, not food, to the lower airway.

C

The nose humidifies, warms, and filters the inspired gas.

D

The nose humdifies, warms, and filters the inspired gas.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   3

 

     3.   Which of the following are functions of the upper airway?

 

     I. Conduction of gas to lower airway

     II. Prevent foreign materials from entering lower airway

   III. Warm, filter, and humdify inspired gas

   IV. Aid in speech and smell

 

a.

I, II, III, and IV

c.

I, II, and III only

b.

I,   III, and IV only

d.

I,   II, and IV only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The upper airway performs all of the listed functions

B

The upper airway performs all of the listed functions

C

The upper airway performs all of the listed functions

D

The upper airway performs all of the listed functions

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Upper Airway   

OBJ:   2

 

     4.   Which structures form the upper third of the nose?

  

     I. Nasal bones

     II. Frontal process of maxilla

   III. Lateral nasal cartilage

   IV. Greater alar cartilage  

 

a.

I , II, and III only

c.

I, II, III, and IV

b.

I and II only

d.

I. II, and IV only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.

B

The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.

C

The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.

D

The upper third of the nose is composed of teh nasal bones and frontal process of the maxilla.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   4

 

     5.   Which structure form the lower two-thirds of the nose?

 

     I. Lateral nasal cartilage

   II. Lesser and greater alar cartilages

   III. Septal cartilage

   IV. Fibrous fatty tissue

 

a.

I, II, and III only

c.

I, II, III, and IV

b.

I. III, and IV only

d.

I, II, and IV only

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose

B

All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose

C

All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose

D

All of the listed structures compose the lower two-thirds of the nose

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   4

 

     6.   What is the term for widening of the nostrils that can occur during respiratory distress?

a.

grunting

c.

alar collapse

b.

retractions

d.

nasal flaring

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns

B

Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns

C

Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns

D

Nasal flaring is the term for the widening of the nostrils, especially seen in respiratory distress in newborns

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-1: Flaring Nostrils

OBJ:   5

 

     7.   Which of the following structures form the anterior nasal septum?

 

     I. Septal cartilage

     II. Vomer

   III. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone

   IV. Frontal process of maxilla

 

a.

I only

c.

I and II only

b.

II, III, and IV only

d.

I, II, and III only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage

B

The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage

C

The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage

D

The anterior portion of the nasal septum if formed by the septal cartilage

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

     8.   Which structures form the posterior section of the floor of the nasal cavity?

 

     I. Nasal bones

     II. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

   III. Palatine process of maxilla

     IV. Superior portion of soft palate

 

a.

II, III, and IV only

c.

1, II, III only

b.

IV only

d.

III and IV only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate

B

The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate

C

The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate

D

The posterior section of the nasal cavity floor is formed by the superior portion of the soft palate

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

     9.   What is the term for the openings created by the alae nasi and septal cartilage?

a.

nares

c.

vestibule

b.

glottis

d.

choana

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.

B

The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.

C

The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.

D

The nares or nostrils are the openings formed by the alae nasi and septal cartilage.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   10.   What type of epithelium lines the anterior third of the nasal cavity?

a.

cuboidal

b.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

c.

stratified squamous

d.

pseudostratified ciliated squamous

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

 

Feedback

A

The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

B

The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

C

The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

D

The anterior third of the nasal cavity id lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   11.   In which structure would vibrissae normally be found?

a.

oropharynx

c.

nasal cavity

b.

laryngopharynx

d.

trachea

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.

B

Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.

C

Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.

D

Vibrissae are normally found in the vestibule of the nasal cavity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   12.   What type of epithelium is present in the posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity?

a.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

c.

stratified squamous

b.

cuboidal

d.

pseudostratified squamous

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.

B

The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.

C

The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.

D

The posterior two-thirds of the nasal cavity is lined with pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   13.   What is another term for conchae?

a.

alae

c.

vestibule

b.

choana

d.

turbinates

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.

B

The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.

C

The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.

D

The conchae in the nasal cavity are also called nasal turninates.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   14.   Where is the olfactory region located in the nasal cavity?

a.

choana

c.

superior and middle turbinates

b.

vestibule

d.

middle and inferior turbinates

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.

B

The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.

C

The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.

D

The olfactory region is located near the superior and middle turbinates.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   15.   Which of the following sinuses are considered to be paranasal sinuses?

 

     I. Maxillary

   II. Frontal

   III. Ethmoid

   IV. Sphenoid

 

a.

I. II. III, and IV

c.

I. III, and IV only

b.

I   and II only

d.

I, II, and III only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.

B

The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.

C

The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.

D

The paranasal sinuses include the maxillary, frontal, ethmoid, and sphenoid sinuses.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose       OBJ:   6

 

   16.   What effect, if any, would be expected from the topical application of phenylephrine on the nasal mucosa?

a.

vasoconstriction

c.

no known effect

b.

vasodilation

d.

bronchospasm

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.

B

When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.

C

When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.

D

When phenylephrine is applied to the nasal mucosa, vasoconstriction should occur.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-2: The Nose: An Excellent Route for Administration of Topical Agents           OBJ:               7

 

   17.   Among pediatric patients, in which age range is epistaxis most prevalent?

a.

10-14 years

c.

8-16 years

b.

2-10 years

d.

newborn -2 years

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.

B

In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.

C

In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.

D

In pediatric patients, nosebleeds are most prevalent among the 2-10 year olds.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-3: Nosebleeds (Epistaxis)                  

OBJ:   8

 

   18.   Approximately what portion of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell?

a.

60%

c.

40%

b.

80%

d.

20%

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.

B

Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.

C

Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.

D

Approximately 80% of the sense of taste is reliant upon the sense of smell.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-4: Nasal Congestion and Its Influence on Taste

OBJ:   9

 

   19.   Which of the following can cause sinusitis?

 

       I. Upper respiratory infection

       II. Dental infection

     III. Air travel

       IV. Scuba diving

 

a.

I, II, and IV only

c.

I, II, and III only

b.

I, II, III, and IV

d.

I and II only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis

B

All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis

C

All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis

D

All of the listed factors can cause sinusitis

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Nose|Clinical Connection 1-6: Sinusitis

OBJ:   10

 

   20.   In the oral cavity, what is the term for the space between the teeth and lips?

a.

vibrissae

c.

vallecula

b.

ventricle

d.

vestibule

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.

B

The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.

C

The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.

D

The space between the teeth and lips is called the vestibule.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oral Cavity    OBJ:   11

 

   21.   What is the name of the structure that secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

a.

uvula

c.

instrinsic lingual muscles

b.

extrinsic lingual muscles

d.

lingual frenulum

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.

B

The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.

C

The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.

D

The lingual frenulum secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oral Cavity    OBJ:   11

 

   22.   Which epithelium lines the oral cavity?

a.

stratified squamous

c.

pseudostraified ciliated columnar

b.

pseudostratified squamous

d.

cuboidal

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

B

The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

C

The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

D

The oral cavity is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oral Cavity    OBJ:   11

 

   23.   To what structure is the uvula attached?

a.

hard palate

c.

palatoglossal arch

b.

palatopharyngeal arch

d.

soft palate

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The uvula is attached to the soft palate.

B

The uvula is attached to the soft palate.

C

The uvula is attached to the soft palate.

D

The uvula is attached to the soft palate.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oral Cavity    OBJ:   11

 

   24.   What is another name for the palatine tonsils?

a.

adenoids

c.

lingual

b.

faucial

d.

pharyngeal

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.

B

The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.

C

The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.

D

The palatine tonsils are also called faucial tonsils.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oral Cavity    OBJ:   11

 

   25.   Which structure extends from the posterior nares to the superior portion of the soft palate?

a.

oropharynx

c.

nasopharynx

b.

palatine tonsils

d.

tongue

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.

B

The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.

C

The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.

D

The nasopharynx extends from the posterior portion of the nasal cavity to the superior portion of the soft palate.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Nasopharynx           

OBJ:   12

 

   26.   Which epithelium is present in the nasopharynx?

a.

pseudostratified squamous

c.

cuboidal

b.

stratified squamous

d.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

B

The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

C

The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

D

The nasopharynx is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Nasopharynx           

OBJ:   12

 

   27.   What is another name for pharyngeal tonsils?

a.

palatine tonsils

c.

faucial tonsils

b.

lingual tonsils

d.

adenoids

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.

B

The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.

C

The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.

D

The pharyngeal tonsils are also called adenoids.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Nasopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-7: Infected and Swollen Pharyngeal Tonsils (Adenoids)

OBJ:   13

 

   28.   What is another name for the pharyngotympanic tubes?

a.

adenoids

c.

auditory

b.

conchae

d.

faucial

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.

B

The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.

C

The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.

D

The pharyngotympanic tubes are also called auditory tubes.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Nasopharynx           

OBJ:   12

 

   29.   What is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children?

a.

tonsillitis

c.

sinusitis

b.

pharyngitis

d.

otitis media

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.

B

Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.

C

Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.

D

Otitis media is the most frequent cause of hearing loss in young children.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Nasopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-8: Otitis Media        OBJ:   14

 

   30.   Which structure extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue?

a.

nasopharynx

c.

uvula

b.

oropharynx

d.

laryngopharynx

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.

B

The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.

C

The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.

D

The oropharynx extends from the soft palate to the base of the tongue.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oropharynx   OBJ:   12

 

   31.   What type of epithelium is found in the oropharynx?

a.

stratified squamous

c.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

b.

pseudostratified squamous

d.

cuboidal

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

B

The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

C

The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

D

The oropharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oropharynx   OBJ:   12

 

   32.   What structure is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx?

a.

vallecula epiglottica

c.

rima glottidis

b.

lingual tonsils

d.

palatine tonsils

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.

B

The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.

C

The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.

D

The vallecula epiglottica is located between the glossoepiglottic folds in the posterior oropharynx.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Oropharynx   OBJ:   12

 

   33.   Which type of epithelium lines the laryngopharynx?

a.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

c.

cuboidal

b.

pseudostratified squamous

d.

stratified squamous

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

B

The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

C

The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

D

The laryngopharynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Laryngopharynx      

OBJ:   12

 

   34.   What is a common site for misplacement of endotracheal tubes during emergency intubation?

a.

stomach

c.

esophagus

b.

left mainstem bronchus

d.

left upper lobar bronchus

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus

B

During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus

C

During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus

D

During emergency intubation, the endotracheal tube could be misplaced into the esophagus

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Laryngopharynx|Clinical Connection 1-9: Endotracheal Tube  

OBJ:   15

 

   35.   Which structure extends from the base of the tongue to the upper end of the trachea?

a.

laryngopharynx

c.

larynx

b.

thyroid gland

d.

rima glottidis

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.

B

The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.

C

The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.

D

The larynx extends from the base of the tongue to the trachea.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Larynx    OBJ:   17

 

   36.   Which of the following are functions of the larynx?

 

       I. Passageway for gas

     II. Protects against aspiration

     III. Generation of sounds for speech

     IV.Warming and filtration of inspired gas

 

a.

I and III only

c.

I and II only

b.

I, II, and III only

d.

I, III, and IV only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.

B

The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.

C

The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.

D

The larynx conducts gas between the phaynx and trachea, protects against aspiration, and generates sound for speech.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Larynx    OBJ:   21

 

   37.   Which of the cartilages of the larynx are unpaired?

a.

thyroid, epiglottis, and arytenoid

b.

artyenoid, cuneiform, and corniculate

c.

thyroid, cricoid, and cuneiform

d.

thyroid, epiglottis, and cricoid

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.

B

The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.

C

The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.

D

The unpaired laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis, thyroid, and cricoid cartilages.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Cartilages of the Larynx

OBJ:   16

 

   38.   To what structure does the upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attach by a membrane?

a.

mandible

c.

epiglottis

b.

hyoid bone

d.

tongue

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.

B

The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.

C

The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.

D

The upper portion of the thyroid cartilage attaches by a membrane to the hyoid bone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Cartilages of the Larynx

OBJ:   16

 

   39.   Which laryngeal cartilage is primarily responsible for preventing food, liquids, and foreign bodies from entering the lower airways?

a.

cricoid

c.

thyroid

b.

epiglottis

d.

corniculate

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.

B

The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.

C

The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.

D

The epiglottis normally protects the lower airway from aspiration.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Cartilages of the Larynx

OBJ:   16

 

   40.   Which laryngeal cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms a large portion of the posterior laryngeal wall?

a.

epiglottis

c.

cuneiform

b.

cricoid

d.

corniculate

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.

B

The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.

C

The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.

D

The cricoid cartilage is shaped like a signet ring and forms most of the posterior laryngeal wall.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Cartilages of the Larynx

OBJ:   16

 

   41.   Which of the laryngeal cartilages are paired?

 

       I. Cuneiform

       II. Arytenoid

     III. Corniculate

     IV. Cricoid

 

a.

I, II, and IV only

c.

I, II, III, and IV

b.

II, III, and IV only

d.

I, II, and III only

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.

B

The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.

C

The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.

D

The paired laryngeal cartilages include the cuneiform, arytenoid, and corniculate cartilages.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Cartilages of the Larynx

OBJ:   16

 

   42.   What is the space between the true vocal cords called?

a.

vallecula

c.

rima glottidis

b.

vestibule

d.

choana

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.

B

The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.

C

The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.

D

The space between the vocal cords is called the rima glottidis or glottis.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Interior of the Larynx         

OBJ:   17

 

   43.   What is the treatment of choice for post-extubation laryngeal edema?

a.

cough medicine

b.

long-acting bronchodilators

c.

aerosolized alpha adrenergic agent such as racemic epinephrine

d.

antibiotics

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.

B

The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.

C

The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.

D

The administration of aerosolized alpha adrenergic agents is the treatment of choice for post extubation laryngeal edema.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-10: Laryngitis                 

OBJ:   18

 

   44.   Which of the following is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by the parainfluenza virus?

a.

pharyngitis

c.

epiglottitis

b.

laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

d.

tonsillitis

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.

B

LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.

C

LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.

D

LTB is a subglottic airway obstruction usually caused by a parainfluenza virus.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-11: Croup Syndrome      

OBJ:   19

 

   45.   What is causative agent in the majority of cases of acute epiglottitis?

a.

Streptococcus

c.

Parainfluenza virus

b.

MRSA

d.

Haemophilus influenzae type B

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.

B

The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.

C

The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.

D

The majority of acute epiglotittis cases is caused by Haemophilus inflenzae type B.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Interior of the Larynx|Clinical Connection 1-11: Croup Syndrome      

OBJ:   19

 

   46.   Which type of epithelium is present in the larynx above the vocal cords?

a.

pseudostratified squamous

c.

cuboidal

b.

stratified squamous

d.

pseudostratified ciliated columnar

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

B

Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

C

Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

D

Above the cords, the larynx is lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Interior of the Larynx         

OBJ:   17

 

   47.   Which laryngeal muscles are primarily responsible for adduction of the vocal cords?

a.

transverse arytenoid

c.

posterior cricoarytenoid

b.

lateral cricoarytenoid

d.

thyroarytenoid

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.

B

The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.

C

The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.

D

The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles cause the vocal cords to move together.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Laryngeal Musculature

OBJ:   20

 

   48.   Which of the following muscles pull the larynx and hyoid downward?

a.

suprahyoid group

c.

posterior cricoarytenoid muscles

b.

cricothyroid muscles

d.

infrahyoid group

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.

B

The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.

C

The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.

D

The infrahyoid muscle group pull the larynx and hyoid downward.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Laryngeal Musculature

OBJ:   20

 

   49.   What is the secondary vital function of the larynx?

a.

Gag reflex

c.

Valsalva’s maneuver

b.

Babinski reflex

d.

Moro maneuver

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.

B

Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.

C

Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.

D

Effort closure during exhalation (Valsalva’s maneuver) is an important secondary function of the larynx.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Ventilatory Function of the Larynx

OBJ:   21

 

   50.   What type of epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles?

a.

stratified squamous

c.

cuboidal

b.

pseudostratified squamous

d.

pseudostratified ciliates columnar

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.

B

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.

C

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.

D

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium extends from the trachea to the respiratory bronchioles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   51.   What is the primary component of the mucous blanket in the tracheobronchial tree?

a.

glycoproteins

c.

lipids

b.

water

d.

DNA

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.

B

The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.

C

The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.

D

The mucous blanket is approximately ninety-five percent water.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   52.   At what level in the tracheobronchial tree are cilia completely absent?

a.

respiratory bronchioles

c.

lobar bronchi

b.

bronchioles

d.

mainstem bronchi

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.

B

Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.

C

Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.

D

Cilia are absent from the epithelial cells of the respiratory bronchioles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   53.   Which cranial nerve innervates the submucosal glands?

a.

tenth

c.

seventh

b.

ninth

d.

eighth

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.

B

The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.

C

The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.

D

The tenth cranial nerve (vagus) innervates the submucosal glands.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   54.   What is the term for the viscous layer of the mucous blanket?

a.

gel

c.

basal

b.

epoxic

d.

sol

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.

B

The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.

C

The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.

D

The thicker layer of the mucous blanket is called the gel layer.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   55.   How many times per minute do the cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move?

a.

1500 times

c.

500 times

b.

2500 times

d.

50 times

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.

B

The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.

C

The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.

D

The cilia in the tracheobronchial tree move approximately 1500 times per minute.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree

OBJ:   22

 

   56.   When excessive secretions are present in the lungs, what term describes the sound heard by ascultation over large airways during exhalation?

a.

crackles

c.

rhonchi

b.

stridor

d.

wheeze

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present

B

Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present

C

Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present

D

Rhonchi are heard over large airways during exhalation when secretions are present

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree |Clinical Connection 1-12: Excessive Airway Secretions        OBJ:           23

 

   57.   Which of the following factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism?

 

         I. Excessive bronchial secretions

         II. Tobacco smoke

       III. Hypoxia

       IV. Air pollution

 

a.

I, II, and III only

c.

I, II, and IV only

b.

I, II, III, and IV

d.

I and II only

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.

B

All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.

C

All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.

D

All of the listed factors can alter the mucociliary transport mechanism.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Histology of the Tracheobronchial Tree |Clinical Connection 1-13: Abnormal Mucociliary Transport Mechanism                                               OBJ:   24

 

   58.   Where are mast cells located in the tracheobronchial tree?

 

         I. Lamina propria

       II. Intra-alveolar septa

       III. Sub-mucosal glands

    

a.

I, II, and III

c.

I and II only

b.

I only

d.

I and III only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.

B

Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.

C

Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.

D

Mast cells are scattered throughout the lamina propria, intralveolar septa, and submucosal glands.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Immune Response   

OBJ:   22

 

   59.   Approximately how many IgE receptor sites are present on a single mast cell?

a.

1,000 - 5,000

c.

100 - 500

b.

1,000,000 - 5,000,000

d.

100,000 - 500,000

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.

B

There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.

C

There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.

D

There are approximately 100,000 - 500,000 IgE receptor sites on the surface of each mast cell.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Immune Response   

OBJ:   22

 

   60.   When degranulation of mast cells occurs and chemical mediators are released, which of the following would occur in the lungs?

 

       I. Increased vascular permeability

     II. Increased mucus production

     III. Smooth muscle relaxation

     IV. Vasodilation with edema

 

a.

I, II, and IV only

c.

I, II, III and IV

b.

I, II, and III only

d.

I and IV only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.

B

Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.

C

Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.

D

Of the listed changes, only increased vascular permeability, increased mucus production, and vasodilation with edema would occur when mast cells degranulate.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Immune Response   

OBJ:   22

 

   61.   What is the term for the cartilaginous airways?

a.

respiratory unit

c.

conducting zone

b.

acinus

d.

tracheobronchial tree

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.

B

The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.

C

The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.

D

The cartilaginous airways are collectively known as the conducting zone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   62.   In cm, what is the average diameter of the adult trachea?

a.

0.5 - 1.5 cm

c.

0.75 - 1.0 cm

b.

2.0-3.5 cm

d.

1.5 - 2.5 cm

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.

B

The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.

C

The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.

D

The diameter of an adult trachea is between 1.5 and 2.5 cm.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   63.   What is the term for the bifurcation of the trachea?

a.

hilum

c.

concha

b.

carina

d.

choana

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.

B

The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.

C

The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.

D

The carina is the point of bifurcation of the trachea.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   64.   In an adult, at what angle does the left mainstem bronchus branch from the trachea?

a.

40-60 degrees

c.

60-75 degrees

b.

10-15 degrees

d.

25-40 degrees

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.

B

In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.

C

In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.

D

In the adult, the left mainstem bronchus branches from the trachea at an angle between 40 and 60 degrees.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   65.   What is the recommended “safe range” for endotracheal tube cuff pressures?

a.

30-35 mm Hg

c.

20-25 mm Hg

b.

45-50 mm Hg

d.

35-40 mm Hg

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.

B

The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.

C

The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.

D

The recommended safe range for cuff pressure is 20-25 mm Hg.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-14: Hazards Associated with Endotracheal Tubes and Tracheostomies                   OBJ:              26

 

   66.   Which vessel is the most commonly associated with massive hemorrhage following a tracheostomy?

a.

pulmonary artery

c.

carotid artery

b.

subclavian artery

d.

innominate artery

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.

B

The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.

C

The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.

D

The innominate artery is most commonly associated with massive hemmorhage following a tracheostomy.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-14: Hazards Associated with Endotracheal Tubes and Tracheostomies                   OBJ:              26

 

   67.   In the newborn, at what angles do the right and left mainstem bronchi form with the trachea?

a.

both form a 55 degree angle

b.

right forms a 60 degree angle, left forms a 25 degree angle

c.

right forms a 25 degree angle, left forms a 60 degree angle

d.

both form a 40 degree angle

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.

B

In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.

C

In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.

D

In the newborn, both mainstem bronchi form a 55 degree angle with the trachea.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   68.   In an adult, into which structure would an endotracheal tube likely enter if the tube is inadvertently advanced too far?

a.

left lower lobar bronchus

c.

right mainstem bronchus

b.

left mainstem bronchus

d.

right middle lobar bronchus

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.

B

An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.

C

An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.

D

An ET tube is likely to enter the right mainstem bronchus if advanced too far in an adult.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Application   

REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways|Clinical Connection 1-15: Inadvertent Intubation of Right Mainstem Bronchus                                           OBJ:              27

 

   69.   How many second generation bronchi would you find in a healthy adult tracheobronchial tree?

a.

3

c.

6

b.

2

d.

5

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.

B

There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.

C

There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.

D

There are 5 lobar or second generation bronchi in the tracheobronchial tree.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   70.   How many segmental bronchi are found in each of the lungs?

a.

each   lung has 8

c.

10 in right lung, 8 in left lung

b.

8 in right lung, 10 in left lung

d.

each lung has 10

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.

B

There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.

C

There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.

D

There are 10 segmental bronchi in the right lung and 8 in the left lung.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Cartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   25

 

   71.   Which airways compose the noncartilaginous airways?

 

         I. Subsegmental bronchi

       II. Bronchioles

       III. Terminal bronchioles

       IV. Respiratory bronchioles

 

a.

I, II, and III only

c.

II and III only

b.

I, II, III, and IV

d.

II only

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.

B

The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.

C

The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.

D

The noncartilaginous airways include the bronchioles and terminal bronchioles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Noncartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   28

 

   72.   At which airway generation do Canals of Lambert appear?

a.

12-15

c.

6-9

b.

16 - 19

d.

20-26

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.

B

The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.

C

The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.

D

The Canals of Lambert are present in the terminal bronchioles between the 16th and 19th airway generation.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Noncartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   28

 

   73.   At what point in the tracheobronchial tree are Clara cells present?

a.

bronchioles

c.

subsegmental bronchi

b.

respiratory bronchioles

d.

terminal bronchioles

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.

B

Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.

C

Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.

D

Clara cells are found in the terminal bronchioles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Noncartilaginous Airways

OBJ:   28

 

   74.   How does the total cross-sectional area of the tracheobrochial tree change from the trachea to the respiratory zone?

a.

It increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone

b.

It decreases slightly to the terminal bronchioles then decreases significantly

c.

It remains steady throughout the tracheobronchial tree

d.

It increases steadily through the lobar bronchi then increases significantly through the remaining airway generations

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.

B

The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.

C

The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.

D

The total cross-sectional area increases steadily to the terminal bronchioles then increases significantly in the respiratory zone.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Bronchial Cross Sectional Area

OBJ:   29

 

   75.   Which structures are nourished by the bronchial arteries?

a.

trachea   through the terminal bronchioles

b.

respiratory zone

c.

noncartilaginous airways only

d.

trachea and mainstem bronchi only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.

B

The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.

C

The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.

D

The brachial arteries nourish the tracheobronchial tree from the trachea through terminal bronchioles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Bronchial Blood Supply

OBJ:   30

 

   76.   In the adult male, approximately how many alveoli are present in the lungs?

a.

180 million

c.

600 million

b.

300 million

d.

130 million

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.

B

In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.

C

In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.

D

In the adult male lungs, approximately 300 million alveoli are present.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Sites of Gas Exchange

OBJ:   31

 

   77.   What type of epithelium composes 95% of the alveolar surface?

a.

Type IV (pseudostratified squamous)

b.

Type I (squamous pneumocyte)

c.

Type II (cuboidal)

d.

Type III (macrophages)

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.

B

Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.

C

Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.

D

Ninety-five percent of the alveolar surface is lined with squamous or Type I pneumocytes.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Sites of Gas Exchange

OBJ:   31

 

   78.   In the lungs of a healthy young adult male, what is the average surface area available for gas exchange?

a.

50 square meters

c.

300 square meters

b.

100 square meters

d.

70 square meters

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.

B

In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.

C

In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.

D

In a healthy young male, there are approximately 70 square meters of surface area available for gas exchange.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Sites of Gas Exchange

OBJ:   31

 

   79.   Which alveolar cells are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant?

a.

Type I

c.

Type III

b.

Type II

d.

Type IV

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.

B

Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.

C

Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.

D

Type II pneumocytes are considered to be the source of pulmonary surfactant.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Sites of Gas Exchange

OBJ:   32

 

   80.   What is the term for the openings in the walls of interalveolar septa?

a.

Loose space

c.

Canals of Lambert

b.

Clara cells

d.

Pores of Kohn

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.

B

Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.

C

Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.

D

Pores of Kohn are openings in the walls of interalveolar septa.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Pores of Kohn                     

OBJ:   32

 

   81.   What is the average thickness of the Type I alveolar cell?

a.

1-5 mm

c.

1-5 microns

b.

0.1-0.5 mm

d.

0.1-0.5 microns

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.

B

The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.

C

The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.

D

The average thickness of the Type I pneumocyte is 0.1 - 0.5 microns.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Alveolar Epithelium

OBJ:   32

 

   82.   Which alveolar cells are macrophages?

a.

Type IV

c.

Type I

b.

Type III

d.

Type II

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.

B

Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.

C

Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.

D

Macrophages are Type III alveolar cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Alveolar Macrophages

OBJ:   32

 

   83.   In which portion of the primary lobule does the majority of gas exchange occur?

a.

Type II pneumocyte

c.

Pores of Kohn

b.

loose space of intestitium

d.

tight space of interstitium

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.

B

The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.

C

The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.

D

The majority of gas exchange occurs in the tight space between the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Intersitium      OBJ:   33

 

   84.   What is the inner layer of the wall of the pulmonary artery called?

a.

tunica intima

c.

tunica adventitia

b.

tunica externicus

d.

tunica media

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.

B

The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.

C

The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.

D

The innermost layer of the pulmonary artery’s wall is called the tunica intima.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Arteries          OBJ:   34

 

   85.   What type of epithelium is present in the pulmonary capillaries?

a.

cuboidal

c.

squamous

b.

pseudostratified columnar

d.

pseudostratified squamous

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.

B

The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.

C

The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.

D

The pulmoary capillaries are composed of squamous epithelial cells.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Capillaries      OBJ:   34

 

   86.   How many pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium?

a.

8

c.

2

b.

4

d.

0

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.

B

Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.

C

Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.

D

Four pulmonary veins empty into the left atrium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Venules and Veins  

OBJ:   34

 

   87.   From what area deep in the lungs do lymphatic vessels arise?

a.

Type II alveolar cells

c.

Type III alveolar cells

b.

tight space of interstitium

d.

loose space of interstitium

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.

B

Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.

C

Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.

D

Lymphatic vessels arise from the loose space of the interstitium.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lymphatic System

OBJ:   35

 

   88.   On which portion(s) of the right lung surfaces would the majority of lymphatic vessels be located?

a.

upper lobes

b.

Lymphatic vessels are distributed equally on all lobes

c.

middle lobe

d.

lower lobes

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.

B

The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.

C

The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.

D

The majority of lymphatic vessels are located over the surfaces of the lower lobes of the lungs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lymphatic System

OBJ:   35

 

   89.   What is the term for the vessels adjacent to peribronchovascular lymphatic vessels?

a.

tertiary   lymphatics

c.

Type IV lymphatics

b.

cardinal lymphatics

d.

juxta-alveolar lymphatics

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.

B

The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.

C

The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.

D

The vessels adjacent to the peribronchovascular lymphatics are called juxta-alveolar lymphatics.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lymphatic System

OBJ:   35

 

   90.   What effect does stimulation of the beta 2 receptors have on the pulmonary system?

a.

bronchdilation

c.

vasodilation

b.

vasoconstriction

d.

bronchoconstriction

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).

B

Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).

C

Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).

D

Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in bronchial smooth muscle relaxation (bronchdilation).

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Neural Control of the Lungs

OBJ:   36

 

   91.   Which neurotransmitter is released when the parasympathetic system is activated?

a.

prostaglandin

c.

norepinephrine

b.

epinephrine

d.

acetylcholine

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

B

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

C

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

D

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Neural Control of the Lungs

OBJ:   36

 

   92.   What is the general term for drugs that block the effects of the parasymphathetic nervous system on the bronchial smooth muscle?

a.

anticholinergic

c.

sympathomimetic

b.

parasympathomimetic

d.

beta adrenergic

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.

B

Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.

C

Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.

D

Drugs that block the parasympathetic system’s effect of constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle are called anticholinergic or parasympatholytic.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Neural Control of the Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-16: The Role of Neural Control Agents in Respiratory Care   OBJ:               38

 

   93.   What effect does stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system have on the body?

 

           I. Dilates the pupils

           II. Causes bronchodilation

         III. Increases rate and force of cardiac contractions

 

a.

I, II, and III

c.

I and III only

b.

II and III only

d.

II and III only

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.

B

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.

C

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.

D

When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the pupils dilate, bronchodilation occurs and the heart beats faster and with more force.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Neural Control of the Lungs

OBJ:   37

 

   94.   When an acute asthma episode occurs, which quick relief agent is most commonly administered?

a.

formoterol

c.

albuterol

b.

arformoterol

d.

salmeterol

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

B

Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

C

Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

D

Albuterol is the quick relief agent most commonly administered to provide quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Neural Control of the Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-17: An Asthmatic Episode and the Role of Bronchodilator and Anti-Inflammatory Drugs                           OBJ:   39

 

   95.   In the healthy adult, what are the normal anterior boundaries of the lungs?

a.

Between first and eigth ribs

b.

Between the second and eleventh ribs

c.

Between first and sixth ribs

d.

Between the second and ninth ribs

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.

B

In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.

C

In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.

D

In the healthy adult, the lungs extend anteriorly between the first and sixth ribs.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lungs      OBJ:   40

 

   96.   What is the term for the uppermost portion of the upright lung?

a.

hilum

c.

apex

b.

lingula

d.

base

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.

B

The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.

C

The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.

D

The apex is the uppermost portion of the upright lung.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lungs      OBJ:   40

 

   97.   How many bronchopulmonary segments are located in the lower lobe of the right lung?

a.

4

c.

2

b.

5

d.

3

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.

B

There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.

C

There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.

D

There are five bronschopulmonary segments in the lower lobe of the right lung.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Lungs (Figure 1-41)

OBJ:   41

 

   98.   What is the term for the therapeutic positional measures which utilize gravity to assist in secretion removal from the lungs?

a.

chest wall oscillation

c.

postural drainage

b.

percussion

d.

vibration

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs

B

Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs

C

Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs

D

Postural drainage uses gravity to assist with secretion removal from the lungs

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Lungs|Clinical Connection 1-18: Postural Drainage Therapy         

OBJ:   42

 

   99.   Which structures are contained in the mediastinum?

 

         I. Trachea

       II. Great vessels

       III. Portions of the esophagus

       IV. Pituitary gland

 

a.

I and II only

c.

I, II, III, and IV

b.

I, II, and IV only

d.

I, II, and III only

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.

B

The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.

C

The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.

D

The trachea, great vessels, and portions of the espohagus are contained in the mediastinum.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Mediatinum      

OBJ:   43

 

100.   What is the term for the potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura?

a.

pericardial cavity

c.

pleural cavity

b.

thoracic cavity

d.

mediatinum

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.

B

The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.

C

The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.

D

The potential space between the pleura is called the pleural cavity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Pleural Membranes

OBJ:   44

 

101.   What is the superior portion of the sternum called?

a.

manubrium sterni

c.

maxilla sterni

b.

body

d.

xiphoid process

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.

B

The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.

C

The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.

D

The superior portion of the sternum is the manubrium sterni.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Thorax    OBJ:   47

 

102.   What is the term for inflammation of the pleural membranes?

a.

pleurisy

c.

pneumothorax

b.

empyema

d.

pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.

B

Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.

C

Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.

D

Inflammation of the pleural membranes is called pleurisy.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-19: Abnormal Conditions of the Pleural membranes    OBJ:           45

 

103.   What is the term for the abnormal collection of fluid in the pleural cavity?

a.

empyema

c.

pneumothorax

b.

hemothorax

d.

pleural effusion

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.

B

The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.

C

The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.

D

The abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is called pleural effusion.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-19: Abnormal Conditions of the Pleural membranes    OBJ:           45

 

104.   In a pneumothorax, where does the abnormal collection of air accumulate?

a.

pleural cavity

c.

thoracic cavity

b.

mediastinum

d.

pericardium

 

 

ANS:  A

 

 

Feedback

A

A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.

B

A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.

C

A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.

D

A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Pleural Membranes|Clinical Connection 1-20: Pneumothorax       

OBJ:   46

 

105.   What is one of the most common iatrogenic complications from a thoracentesis?

a.

pleural effusion

c.

pneumothorax

b.

empyema

d.

hemorrhage

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.

B

An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.

C

An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.

D

An iatrogenic pneumothorax is one of the most common complication from a thoracentesis.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   The Thorax|Clinical Connection 1-21: Puncture Site for a Thoracentesis

OBJ:   48

 

106.   Which ribs are identified as floating ribs?

a.

7-12

c.

9-12

b.

7-10

d.

11 and 12

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.

B

Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.

C

Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.

D

Rib eleven and twelve are called floating ribs since they do not have an anterior attachment.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Thorax    OBJ:   47

 

107.   Which nerves supply the primary motor innervation to the right and left hemidiaphragms?

a.

vagus

c.

Thoracic nerves 1-3

b.

phrenic

d.

IX cranial

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.

B

The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.

C

The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.

D

The hemidiaphragms receive their primary motor innervation from the terminal branches of the phrenic nerves.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall           

REF:   Muscles of Ventilation|Clinical Connection 1-22: Spinal Cord Trauma and Diaphragmatic Paralysis   OBJ:           50

 

108.   Which structure moves in a “pump handle-like motion” during inspiration?

a.

diaphragm

c.

external intercostals

b.

sternum

d.

internal intercostals

 

 

ANS:  B

 

 

Feedback

A

The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.

B

The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.

C

The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.

D

The sternum moves up in a pump handle-like motion during inspiration and increases the anterior-posterior portion of the thorax.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Muscles of Ventilation

OBJ:   47

 

109.   Which of the following are accessory muscles of inspiration?

 

         I. External intercostals

       II. Scalenus muscles

       III. Transverse abdominus

       IV. Trapezius muscles

 

a.

I and II only

c.

I, II, and IV only

b.

I, II, III, and IV

d.

I, III, and IV only

 

 

ANS:  C

 

 

Feedback

A

The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

B

The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

C

The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

D

The accessory muscles of inspiration include the external intercostals, the scalenus and trapezius muscles along with the pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   The Accessory Muscles of Inspiration

OBJ:   51

 

110.   Which of the following are accessory muscles of expiration?

 

     I. Rectus abdominis

     II. Transverse abdominis

   III. Internal intercostals

     IV. Pectoralis major

 

 

a.

I and II only

c.

II, III, and IV only

b.

I, II, III, and IV only

d.

I. II, and III only

 

 

ANS:  D

 

 

Feedback

A

Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.

B

Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.

C

Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.

D

Of the listed muscle groups, only the pectoralis major muscle is NOT an accessory muscle of expiration.

 

 

PTS:   1                    DIF:    Recall            REF:   Accessory Muscles of Expiration

OBJ:   52